UK Customs Clearance Question
- gbbird
- Senior Forumgod
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Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
I once purchased a used guitar from the USA for around £750 and had to pay in the region of £90 customs and duty charges
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CW - C60 blue, C60 black orange, C600 tit, FLE13
Gerlach - Orp Sokol, P50, LuxSport. Ball Engineer
Omega Speedmaster. Oris Aquis
Longines Hydroconquest
Magrette - Regattare, DualTime, Moana
Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
I am back after a short lie down in a dark room!!!
In answer to a few of the comments I am more than happy to pay my fare dues paying particular attention to the fare part!
In fairness it does seem to be straight forward in querying the fee. In light of this has anyone been through this process and if so do you pay the outstanding fee then query it or do you query then pay when it is reassessed?
Thanks in advance.
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In answer to a few of the comments I am more than happy to pay my fare dues paying particular attention to the fare part!
In fairness it does seem to be straight forward in querying the fee. In light of this has anyone been through this process and if so do you pay the outstanding fee then query it or do you query then pay when it is reassessed?
Thanks in advance.
Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk
Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
I would query before paying - is there a contact phone number?
Alasdair
Alasdair
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Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
IME you pay or you don't get your package. Not aware of any appeal procedure.
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Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
you can pay, get the goods, then request a refund if you believe you have paid too much - forms here:
https://www.gov.uk/goods-sent-from-abroad/tax-and-duty
Alasdair
https://www.gov.uk/goods-sent-from-abroad/tax-and-duty
Alasdair
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- rcherryuk
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Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
I think that's the insured value, I.e. What it will cost to replace it if lost in transit!It'sAliveJim wrote:Why on earth did he declare a value of $650 when it was bought for $325? And I really don't get how customs have come up with £150 on a watch valued at most, £430? My reckoning is about £110, and that includes the Parcel Force fee, but it should have only been about £55 if the actual value had been declaredCraigy235 wrote:Just been informed I owe £150.39?????
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Something has gone seriously awry here
The most you should pay is about 25%, and that includes the UK postal handling fee. If it was sent via normal mail, this is about £8 (Royal Mail), if it was sent express, it's about £15 (Parcel Farce).
I believe the only solution is to pay and appeal stating the charges have been based on the insured value, not the actual value, and enclose copies of receipts/screenshots of paypal transaction etc.
Then hope the HMRC assessor isn't having a bad day
Rob
Rob
Watches are like Dictionaries; the worst is better than none, and the best cannot be expected to go quite true.
Samuel Johnson
Watches are like Dictionaries; the worst is better than none, and the best cannot be expected to go quite true.
Samuel Johnson
Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
Yeah it must be the case but still seems extremely high even taken the higher values.
Hopefully they see sense cause otherwise this watch will go way beyond the realm of being affordable.
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Hopefully they see sense cause otherwise this watch will go way beyond the realm of being affordable.
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- chester
- Expert
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Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
The sender will have had to daclare a value on the item and you will have to pay 20% VAT on that value. The courier usually covers that charge (I'm not exactly sure how it works) and will not release the package to you until the fee and a handling charge have been paid. As others have pointed out the handling charge is usually about £15.
Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
Spoke with customs today and been told that the sender marked the value as $1000. I spoke to him and it was done with the best of intentions.
My question now is do I pay the fee and attempt to claim it back or reject the parcel altogether?
Has anyone had any experience in querying custom charges?
Thanks in advance for your help.
Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk
My question now is do I pay the fee and attempt to claim it back or reject the parcel altogether?
Has anyone had any experience in querying custom charges?
Thanks in advance for your help.
Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk
Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
did they not offer you the option to show evidence that the value is less?
otherwise, yes I believe that you need to pay the full amount and then reclaim the difference using the forms I linked to above...
Alasdair
otherwise, yes I believe that you need to pay the full amount and then reclaim the difference using the forms I linked to above...
Alasdair
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Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
Yeah actually they said they would hold the parcel for 21 days I think without charge whilst I query the charges; sorry that was a bit unclear.
My question really is how successful is the query process?
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My question really is how successful is the query process?
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Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
I would have thought that it is worth trying - just send them a bank statement / receipt showing the real value - maybe a letter from the seller showing the true value and see what happens - I have tended to find HMRC very helpful when there is no real issue and it is a matter of simply sorting out a mistake...
Alasdair
Alasdair
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- craigski
- Senior Guru
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Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
Not sure of the specific history of this particular item, but if a watch is sold new in the UK VAT is paid when item was sold.
If that same item is then sold to a buyer second hand/used to an overseas seller (lets say USA), and then resold later by the US owner back to a different UK buyer, would VAT still be applicable on the item? Common sense would tell me that VAT was paid at point of sale when it was originally sold as new in the UK, so could there be a case if you can prove (original purchase receipt?) that no VAT would be liable when buying second hand from overseas for an item that was originally purchased in UK?
If that same item is then sold to a buyer second hand/used to an overseas seller (lets say USA), and then resold later by the US owner back to a different UK buyer, would VAT still be applicable on the item? Common sense would tell me that VAT was paid at point of sale when it was originally sold as new in the UK, so could there be a case if you can prove (original purchase receipt?) that no VAT would be liable when buying second hand from overseas for an item that was originally purchased in UK?
Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
according to the HMRC website - they will still charge you VAT on a second-hand item...
in theory, at the point of exit from the country, VAT may be refundable, therefore at the point of entry / re-entry VAT is payable...
VAT can be payable on second-hand items in the UK as well - a lot can depend on the status of the seller... and the type of item
Alasdair
in theory, at the point of exit from the country, VAT may be refundable, therefore at the point of entry / re-entry VAT is payable...
VAT can be payable on second-hand items in the UK as well - a lot can depend on the status of the seller... and the type of item
Alasdair
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- craigski
- Senior Guru
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Re: UK Customs Clearance Question
Thanks Alasdair. Just trying to understand this a bit more, lets work through an example:
1) Craigski buys a CW watch new from CWL in the UK for £1000 + VAT (total £1,200)
2) Craigski sells the watch to Kip (in the US) as a private seller & buyer (neither are VAT registered) for £900, shipped from UK to US.
3) Alasdair then buys the same watch as a private buyer (not VAT registered) from Kip for £700, shipped back from US to UK
Am I correct in thinking that Alasdair would have to pay VAT & Admin charges on the £700 transaction in (3), even though Craigski has already paid the VAT in transaction (1)?
Could Craigski claim the £200 VAT back he paid in (1) even though he is not VAT registered?
It seems to me the HMRC are the only winners here, as they are taxing the same item twice
Apologies Craig235 for hi-jacking thread, could get confusing as there are 2 Craigs
1) Craigski buys a CW watch new from CWL in the UK for £1000 + VAT (total £1,200)
2) Craigski sells the watch to Kip (in the US) as a private seller & buyer (neither are VAT registered) for £900, shipped from UK to US.
3) Alasdair then buys the same watch as a private buyer (not VAT registered) from Kip for £700, shipped back from US to UK
Am I correct in thinking that Alasdair would have to pay VAT & Admin charges on the £700 transaction in (3), even though Craigski has already paid the VAT in transaction (1)?
Could Craigski claim the £200 VAT back he paid in (1) even though he is not VAT registered?
It seems to me the HMRC are the only winners here, as they are taxing the same item twice
Apologies Craig235 for hi-jacking thread, could get confusing as there are 2 Craigs
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